Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Taking supplements of B3
B. Increasing sodium intake
C. Eating a diet high in calcium
D. Drinking additional fluids
Taking supplements of B3 (niacin) helps to improve the symptoms associated with Ménière’s disease. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs to limit sodium intake. The client with Ménière’s does not need additional sources of calcium; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Ménière’s is not improved by increasing fluid intake; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. An elementary school teacher
B. A resident in a nursing home
C. An office worker
D. A local firefighter
Clients over age 65 and those with chronic conditions should receive priority in receiving influenza vaccine when supplies are limited. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not receive priority in receiving the immunization.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the board of nursing
B. File a formal reprimand and monitor the nurse
C. Terminate the nurse
D. Charge the nurse with a tort
The next action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident. If the behavior continues or if harm has resulted to the client, the nurse might be terminated and reported to the board of nursing, so answers A and C are incorrect. A tort is a wrongful act to the client or her belongings, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Risedronate (Actonel)
B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
C. Ibandronate (Boniva)
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
Evista should not be given to clients with liver disease because it can make the condition worse. Answers A, B, and C are not contraindicated in liver disease clients, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Clients with GERD should eat four to six small meals per day to prevent reflux rather than three large meals. Answers B, C, and D are recommendations for health promotion tactics to control reflux. Other aspects include no snacking in the evening; no food two to three hours before bedtime; elevating the head of the bed at night; avoiding heavy lifting and straining; and limiting fatty, spicy foods, coffee, chocolate, alcohol, and colas.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
B. The client who is six months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents and a client with a frontal head injury
D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain
Out of all these clients, it is best to hold the pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations in the same room. The other clients need to be placed in separate rooms, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option D
A. Auscultating lung sounds
B. Obtaining the client’s temperature
C. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses
D. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations
Answer: 1,2,4
A focused assessment focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client’s complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion, the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete assessment includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to this client’s complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client’s complaints. However, the strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete assessment. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete
assessment
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Reduces spasticity
B. Skeletal muscle relaxation
C. Immune suppression
D. Prevents viral infections
The drug Baclofen (Lioresal) might also improve bowel and bladder function. Answers B, C, and D do not refer to the drug Lioresal, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The nurse offers extra blankets.
B. The nurse places a tracheostomy tube at the bedside.
C. The nurse insists that the client refrain from talking.
D. The nurse administers pain medication every four hours.
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves and goggles
C. Gloves, gown, and shoe protectors
D. Gloves, gown, goggles, and a mask or face shield
Splashes of body secretions can occur when providing colostomy care. Goggles and a mask or face shield are worn to protect the face and mucous membranes of the eyes during interventions that may produce splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. In addition, contact precautions require the use of gloves, and a gown should be worn if direct client contact is anticipated. Shoe protectors are not necessary.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The RN with 2 weeks experience in postpartum
B. The RN with 3 years experience in labor and delivery
C. The RN with 10 years experience in surgery
D. The RN with 1 year experience in the neonatal intensive care unit
The nurse in answer B has the most experience in knowing the possible complications involved with preeclampsia. The nurse in answer A is a new nurse to this unit, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer C has no experience with the postpartum client, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer D also has no experience with postpartum clients, so the answer is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-9 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 weeks
The incubation period (the period of time from exposure to the onset of the first symptoms) is 10 to 14 days. The first symptoms of smallpox infection include an abrupt onset of chills, high fever, headache, backache, severe malaise, vomiting, possible delirium, stupor and coma
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the client’s overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet
B. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended
C. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column.
D. The client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated.
Brudzinski’s sign is tested with the client in the supine position. The nurse flexes the client’s head (gently moves the head to the chest), and there should be no reports of pain or resistance to the neck flexion. A positive Brudzinski’s sign is observed if the client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. Kernig’s sign also tests for meningeal irritation and is positive when the client flexes the legs at the hip and knee and complains of pain along the vertebral column when the leg is extended. Decorticate posturing is abnormal flexion and is noted when the client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. Decerebrate posturing is abnormal extension and occurs when the arms are fully extended, forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, jaws clenched, neck extended, and feet plantar-flexed
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